Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

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Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Postby rstrats » Thu Oct 13, 2016 5:28 pm

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is discussed with 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection folks, some of them say that it is using common Jewish idiomatic language to explain the missing night time. I wonder if anyone knows of examples that forecast a daytime or a night time being involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have taken place? If the verse is using common idiomatic language, there ought to be examples of that usage in order to be able to say that it was common.
Last edited by rstrats on Fri Oct 14, 2016 5:20 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Idiomatic Language?

Postby notforgotten » Thu Oct 13, 2016 6:06 pm

Welcome to the Oasis.

Mathew 12:40. For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

I believe that this is comparing the three days and three nights that Jonas spent in the whales belly to the three days and three nights that Jesus descended in hell, after the crucifixion, preaching the gospel to the dead.

1 Peter 4:6. For this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

This is all I know of that scripture. There are good people on these forums that know the Bible better than I do. Perhaps they can do better than I have here. Peace.
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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Idiomatic Language?

Postby dema » Thu Oct 13, 2016 7:00 pm

I have heard it preached that there were two sabbath's being discussed. One was the passover and the other was the weekly sabbath and you can then figure out that Jesus died on a Wednesday and not on a Friday. I don't remember the math involved.
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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Idiomatic Language?

Postby rstrats » Thu Oct 13, 2016 7:49 pm

Perhaps someone new looking in will know of examples.
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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Idiomatic Language?

Postby Mackenaw » Fri Oct 14, 2016 1:57 am

Hello rstrats :)

God bless you this day, and welcome to Christianity Oasis.

There are some really good studies on this site, and most are rather quick reads, but equally as sweet. One of those studies is entitled "Good Friday Bible Study". Here is the link: http://www.christianityoasis.com/keyword/GoodFriday.htm

Another really good study is entitled "Feasts Shadows". Here is the link: http://www.christianityoasis.com/EndTim ... hadows.htm

I love (what I call) God assignments -- when God stirs up a blessed curiosity within one of His children. :) I think both studies will assist you in your search for The Truth.

I hope to see you around the site.

God bless and keep you,
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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Idiomatic Language?

Postby rstrats » Fri Oct 14, 2016 5:17 am

Mackenaw,

Thanks for the links, but I'm afraid I don't see where they provide examples of a daytime or a night time being forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred.

Also, the topic subject line should have included the word "Common" before the word "Idiomatic". I have made the addition.
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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Postby Mackenaw » Fri Oct 14, 2016 6:17 am

Hello rstrats :)

God bless you this day.

I'm sorry that I misunderstood your question. I'll try once more. :)

Genesis 1:3 And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.
(4) And God saw the light, that it was good: and God divided the light from the darkness.
(5) And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the mornings were the first day.

God called into existence light: "...Let there be light: and there was light.
Given that, I would say...the day begins with light. :)

See also Matthew 20:1-13

Also...John 11:9-10
(9)Jesus answered, Are there not twelve hours in the day? If any man walk in the day, he stumbleth not, because he seeth the light of this world.
(10) But if a man walk in the night, he stumbleth, because there is no light in him.

Matthew 14:25 And in the fourth watch of the night Jesus went unto them, walking on the sea.

Given, those examples of scripture, I would surmise that a new day begins, once there is light. And, according to the schedule of the (4) night watches (each 3 hours long ...4 x 3 = 12 hours of night), the 1st night watch begins at 6 p.m. and the 4th watch ends at 6 a.m.

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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Postby rstrats » Fri Oct 14, 2016 6:34 am

Mackenaw,
re: "I'm sorry that I misunderstood your question. I'll try once more."

And I'm sorry, but I just don't see what your comments have to do with my question.
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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Postby mlg » Fri Oct 14, 2016 7:11 am

Hello rstrats

God Bless you and welcome to Christianity Oasis. I have been reading this thread and all I see is a lot of confusion. You seem to be seeking a specific answer to your question. Maybe you could reword your question to show what it is you seek. I have not offered a reply to your question, as I don't really know what exactly you are asking. With a bit more clarification, maybe we can help you find the answer to your question. And if not pray that God will show you the answer.

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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Idiomatic Language?

Postby notforgotten » Fri Oct 14, 2016 7:49 am

rstrats wrote:Mackenaw,

Thanks for the links, but I'm afraid I don't see where they provide examples of a daytime or a night time being forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred.

Also, the topic subject line should have included the word "Common" before the word "Idiomatic". I have made the addition.

Night and day still occurs, only a person does not see them in those places. Perhaps it was an idiomatic way of expressing a 24 hour day. Sorry, I have no examples.
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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Postby rstrats » Fri Oct 14, 2016 9:01 am

mlg,
re: ". Maybe you could reword your question to show what it is you seek...as I don't really know what exactly you are asking."

The Messiah said that 3 night times would be involved with His time in the "heart of the earth". Assuming the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb, a 6th day of the week afternoon burial/1st day of the week resurrection does not allow for a 3rd night time. To explain the lack of a 3rd night time, some 6th day of the week crucifixion proponents say that the Messiah is using a common idiomatic/figure of speech/colloquialism. I am simply asking anyone who thinks that is the case, what examples they have that allows them to legitimately say that it was common usage, i.e., examples which show that it was common to forecast a daytime or a night time being involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred.
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Re: Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Postby notforgotten » Fri Oct 14, 2016 9:15 am

The "heart of the earth" refers to inside the earth (underground), the darkest places of hell.
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